The Absurdity of Patriarchy
Patriarchy has a variety of definitions. This site responds to the feminist definition which differs markedly from dictionary definitions. Today the feminist definition of patriarchy is widely accepted within western nations. Patriarchy, as defined by feminists, does not exist and never did exist.
Definitions
Sample Feminist Definition
This is a definition of patriarchy by the London Feminist Network[1]
Patriarchy is the term used to describe the society in which we live today, characterised by current and historic unequal power relations between women and men whereby women are systematically disadvantaged and oppressed. This takes place across almost every sphere of life but is particularly noticeable in women’s under-representation in key state institutions, in decision- making positions and in employment and industry. Male violence against women is also a key feature of patriarchy. Women in minority groups face multiple oppressions in this society, as race, class and sexuality intersect with sexism for example.
Concrete Terms
Anyone believing in patriarchy should try to answer the following questions in concrete terms.
When and where did it start?
If patriarchy existed and exists, it must have started somewhere.[2] Be specific in providing information on where and when this occured.
What written evidence did the purveyors of patriarchy in the past leave behind?
If patriarchy existed in the past those maintaining the system would likely have had a theoretical basis for their activities and they would probably have written this down. Copies should survive.
The requirement here is for written evidence of the systematic and intended oppression of women. Documents (such as the Torah and Christian Bible) that describe ancient cultural practices are not sufficient. This document would need to explicitly talk about the oppression of women.
Women who lived under patriarchy must have been aware of it. Did they leave any written records explicitely detailing the system used to oppress them?
Is it more prevalent in some cultures and periods of history than others? If so, which ones and when?
It is improbable that a movement would be equally expressed in all cultures and at all times. Thus it should be possible to describe cultures and periods of history in which the systematic and intentional oppression of women was more prevalent than others.
Did women ever try to rise up and fight it?
Fighting in this context need not mean physical violence. The women of a village (or an entire society), realising their plight, could choose to leave en masse with their children, fleeing their oppressors. Women could also fight the oppression of patriarchy by engaging in passive resistance. This would involve the women of a community (or a society) refusing to participate in their own oppression. They could collectively refuse to participate in any form of work that supported the society, and therefore their own oppression.
It is worth noting that the MGTOW movement explicitly talks about men passively and lawfully resisting contributing to a system that is hostile to them. If patriarchy existed, parallel attitudes should have exist among women.
If this ever occured it would likely have been a significant event and would be in the written record of that society or a neighbouring society.
If so, what was the result?
Did any of these women succeed in shaking off patriarchy? For those that did not succeed, what was the punishment? How many women where tortured, killed or exiled by the men of their society for the failed uprising? How many women were punished in other ways? When uprisings are suppressed it is common for the ruling class to publicise the unsuccessful uprising and the punishments meted out so as to dissuade others. Records detailing an event like this should still exist.
Why did patriarchy ever permit female rulers?
Many societies had a minority of female rulers. Claims of patriarchy must explain why a patriarchal system would ever permit any female rulers. It must also explain why local female rulers were preferred over foreign male rulers as is historically documented.
Mary I of England and Ireland
When Mary I married, the terms of the marriage contract made her and her foreign husband joint rulers of England. He could not act without her consent. It is clear that the English nobility trusted an English woman to rule more than a foreign man. When Mary died in 1558 the crown did not remain with her foreign husband but rather went to her English half sister Elizabeth I. Nationality trumped gender.
Boudica
Both the Roman emperor and Queen Boudica had a claim to the allegiance of the Iceni tribe in ancient Britain. The Iceni unreservedly backed Boudica over the male emperor. Nationality trumps gender, again.
Intersectionality
Feminists have argued that patriarchy does allow women in to leadship roles and roles of authority as a result of intersecionality.[3] A significant problem with this arguement is that it requires acceptance of the notion that any members of an oppressed group would be permitted to rise in to powerful positions. Review of genuine oppressor-oppressed relationships shows that the oppressed do not find themselves in positions of true power and authority. In a few cases, such as slaves rising in to powerful positions within the Ottoman Empire, the oppressed had successfully made a transition in to the ranks of the oppressors.
References
<references>
- ↑ http://londonfeministnetwork.org.uk/home/patriarchy
- ↑ http://www.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/20o6yv/how_can_i_convince_my_friend_that_horrible_acts/cg567wx
- ↑ http://finallyfeminism101.wordpress.com/2007/03/21/faq-isnt-the-patriarchy-just-some-conspiracy-theory-that-blames-all-men-even-decent-men-for-womens-woes/